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#1
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#2
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The control in question is not data bound. Is this possible? Is it perhaps possible with a different syntactical construction; e.g. perhaps with <%# %>? |
#3
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Let's say my ASPX page codebehind has a method S() which returns a string value (of let's say a constant "string"). If I do this (hope all these special chars make it through) on an ASPX page: a href='<%=S()%>'>Link</a this renders as one might expect; i.e. S() is evaluated and the html rendered will be something like: a href='string'>Link</a With a server control: asp:HyperLink runat="server" NavigateUrl='<%=S()%>' Link /asp:HyperLink I instead get: a href='<%=S()%>'>Link</a i.e. the expression is not evaluated. This appears to be the same for most or perhaps all attributes of most or perhaps all server controls. I'm creating a custom control (derived from WebControl) where I would prefer to have these expressions evaluated in attributes (or at least some of them) before they are passed to the control. I'd imagine that this is probably done by specifying an attribute for the control property or perhaps for the control as a whole, as the evaluation needs to occur prior to the attribute value being passed to the control, which has no context for evaluation at that point. The control in question is not data bound. Is this possible? Is it perhaps possible with a different syntactical construction; e.g. perhaps with <%# %>? (VS2005, ASP.NET2.0) |
#4
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On Wed, 13 Dec 2006 15:38:39 GMT, James Hawkins <not (AT) real (DOT) address wrote: The control in question is not data bound. Is this possible? Is it perhaps possible with a different syntactical construction; e.g. perhaps with <%# %>? I noticed that I can use <%#S()%>, but only if I call DataBind() on the control. As this is a custom control that I don't want to have to explicitly DataBind(), I am currently doing a 'self-bind' by calling DataBind() in the control's OnInit(). Is this an acceptable way of doing things? Thanks. |
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